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Is John 20:28 an
Exclamation or an Address?
John 20:28 in the ISV reads "Thomas answered him" (which some
might argue that "my Lord and my God" is a derogatory exclamation) instead
of "Thomas said to him" (which would
mean that "my Lord and my God" were declarations of Christ's deity).
In the English language
one does not employ the phrase "Thomas answered to him". One employs the
phrase "Thomas answered him". The issue is the English rendering, not the
Greek.
Now as to the phrase "My Lord" and "My God" being an exclamation of
surprise rather than an instance of direct address, do keep in mind that
neither Koine Greek nor Jewish custom of the first century utilized
vocatives (the case used in John 20:28) for oaths. Simply put, the phrase
"O my Lord! O my God!" wasn't an expression of surprise or derogation in
those cultures. But then again, the phrase is being addressed to Jesus
himself, as our text clearly notes: "Thomas answered him" (i.e.,
Jesus). Our rendering doesn't say "Thomas answered", which would have been
one way to express surprise: i.e., "Thomas answered 'O my Lord! O my God!"
-- That's how you make the Greek phrase into an exclamation of
surprise. Which, by the way, is not what the Greek is
saying.
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