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Does Nature
Teach?
I have discovered that only
the ISV and the Wycliffe NT translates 1 Corinthians 11:14-15 as a statement
rather than a question. Why do the other translations reverse the Greek word
order from "Not even does nature teach..." to " Does not even nature
teach..."?
The Greek text
of the passage is not rendered as a question, but rather as a declarative
sentence. Now as to why other translations render the sentence as a
question, we haven't the slightest idea!
Click here to download in Adobe PDF format an essay that addresses
this question, along with other questions about the veiling of women in 1
Corinthians 11. The essay was written by the ISV Foundation Director Dr.
William Welty. Or
click here
to read it on line at his personal web site.
My question is
regarding 1 Corinthians 11: 5 and 6 in the context of your interpretation of
vs.15. It didn't seem to be addressed in the paper that was given as a link
on your site.
The Greek text
of the passage is not rendered as a question, but rather as a declarative
sentence. Now as to why other translations render the sentence as a
question, we haven't the slightest idea!
Verse 5 is referenced on page
6, column one, in Section III. The Meaning of "Authority on Her Head".
If Paul is
saying in vs. 15 that hair is given as a substitute for coverings (despite
not being the same word for covering as used previously),
Paul doesn't use the same
word for covering because the previous usage was to the hair looking like
that of a woman on trial for adultery. The word means in that place
"unloosened," not "uncovered". The real word for covering is in vs. 15.
That's because Paul IS talking about uncovered hair by the time he gets to
that verse. There has been a subtle change of subject.
then why
did he say in vs 5 and 6 "and every woman who prays or prophesies with her
head uncovered dishonors her head, which is the same as having her head
shaved. So if a woman does not cover her head, she should cut off her
hair. If it is a disgrace for a woman to cut off her hair or shave her
head, let her cover her own head."?
You're asking why the ISV
translates the phrase as "uncovered" instead of "unloosened," like my
paper says it ought to be? The reason is a lot simpler than you might
think...it's because my reading was overruled by the Committee on
Translation for the ISV...
If the hair
is the covering, then to be uncovered is to be shaved. Paul would then be
saying that if her head is shaved it is the same as having her head shaved
or if she has her head shaved she should cut off her hair.
Only if the Gk.
akatakalyptos is used as "unloosened", which is my view, but not that of
the COT. The other members of the COT decided to stick with the
traditional rendering. I was unable to persuade them, which is why this
section of 1 Cor. 11 is going to remain a bit muddled, I'm afraid.
If Paul is
arguing for hair to be enough of a covering as opposed to wearing a
garment, then still why go into vs 5 and 6 when the point is that,
essentially, her head is already covered (by her hair).
Because verse 5&6 are
talking about unloosened hair, not uncovered hair. Your question uncovers
a seam in the otherwise seamless ISV renderings from the Greek.
My take on
this passage is that vs 3 to 9 give the background for the passage which
indicates how the syntax of vs.13 - 15 is to be understood, not the other
way around.
You are right about this.
The term akatakalyptos needs to be rendered "unloosened," not "uncovered"
in verse 5. Your observations come from this fundamental error in the
ISV's take on verse 5, or, more accurately, on the ISV COT's take on verse
5. If I had my way (usually I do, but not in the case of verse 5), the
verse would read like this:
5and every woman who prays
or prophesies with unloosened hair [f] dishonors her household [f], which
is just as if she were to have admitted being caught in adultery. [f]
——————————————
[f] Cf. Num 5:18 LXX
[f] Lit. head
[f] Lit. as having her head shaved; i.e. a public punishment, in
lieu of execution, for having committed adultery
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